10.3 Merton’s Model of a Distressed Firm
We
now turn to Merton’s model to explain why GM can trade for a
positive price even though shareholders equity is negative.
Although we are using the
model for firms that are distressed, it can actually be applied to
any firm; in fact, variations of the model are used to estimate
default probabilities on debt even for companies with healthy
balance sheets.
In its simplest
form, suppose a firm has assets A and has issued a zero-coupon bond
as debt that matures at time T.span style="mso-spacerun:yes">
Let F be the face value of this bond, so the company will
have to pay back F at time T.
If it cannot, it will have to default.
LLet B be the value of the debt and E the shareholders equity,
so today,
A = B + E, or
Assets = Liabilities + Shareholders Equity
Even if E is
negative, so A < B, the firm can continue to operate because it does
not actually have to pay the liability until time T.span style="mso-spacerun:yes">
So if the assets grow sufficiently, it can avoid bankruptcy
at time T. AAs an aside,
this is clearly a simplified story; if a firm has negative equity,
it can be very difficult for that firm to obtain financing for
everyday operations, in turns making it very difficult for it to
operate without some protection from creditors.
So if at time T,
Asub>T >= F, the firm can avoid bankruptcy, and in that case,
the shareholders equity will be AT -F.
If AT <F, the shareholders equity will be negative
and so the stock will be worth zero (because of the limited
liability of stock holders).
So the value of
a stock at time T, with everything measured on a per share basis, is
ST =
Max{A-F,0}
This is the same
as the payoff from a call option; in Merton’s model, a stock is a call option on the
assets of the firm.
The strike price (or exercise price) of the option is the face value
of the debt. IIt is a
European option because the stock holder cannot exercise the option
(which here would be akin to asking the firm to pay the difference
between the assets and the liabilities to the stock holder).
The value of
this option can be calculated from option pricing theory,
specifically the Black-Scholes model.
This model requires two more inputs: the risk free interest
rate and the volatility of the assets.
Let r be the risk free interest rate; we would typically use
the yield on a Treasury instrument with maturity T.
The volatility of the assets presents more of a problem, but
as you will see, it can be imputed from market prices.
Let
sA
be the volatility of assets (or more correctly, the volatility of
the asset return).
The stock value
then follows from Black Scholes:
The relation
between equity volatility and asset volatility is:
Here, N(.) is
the cumulative normal distribution, and
If you have an
estimate for /span>
sE,
this equation can be solved for
sA (though
it’s a bit more complicated than it looks because N(d1)
depends on
sA
as well).
In Valuation Tutor, we have two form of the Merton model; in
the first, you have to specify
sA.
In the second, you specify the equity volatility and Valuation Tutor
solves for
sA.
This model can
be further applied to estimating the “distance to default” which can
be converted into a probability of default (Bharath and Schumway
(2008)).